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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 17.06.2025 06:04

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What are some ballbusting stories?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why do Brits drive a lot more dangerously compared to Americans? Is there just no courtesy when driving in the UK?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.